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Geek Culture / Design of artificial intelligence must read

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mr Handy
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Posted: 24th Apr 2013 23:41 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:48
@Michael P
You are not everyone.

Quote: "Just because you either don't agree with something or don't understand something doesn't mean they're trolling."

Here we go again. I state that Sun is purple. I doubt that you agree with me or you understand me.

edit: typos

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The Zoq2
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Posted: 24th Apr 2013 23:47
Alright perhaps 0.9.... does = 1. However, someone said something about that you can't add 1 to infinity. What about the diffirent "number groups" (real numbers, irreal numbers, whole numbers, positive whole numbers ect) I have no idea what it's called in english. But acording to that, the positive numbers are always twice as many as the whole numbers. Even though both are infinite. Whenever you add one more positive number (...1), you will add 2 more whole numbers (-...1). Dosn't that mean that infinity can infact be added to. infinity+1 != infinity even though both of them are infinity
rolfy
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Posted: 24th Apr 2013 23:53 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:17
You can go way back to Aristotle to find these paradoxes and the Math to go with it.
Its dichotomy and at the end of the day we can't grasp infinity. Your going to burst a major blood vessel trying to, just accept this is a physical world for which Mathematics doesn't have all the answers and in fact forces us into contradicting ourselves.

Infinity is by its very nature impossible to prove the existence of, whereas I can easily disprove it by dropping a simple rock.

I don't trip over...I do random gravity checks.
Michael P
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:02
Quote: "Alright perhaps 0.9.... does = 1. However, someone said something about that you can't add 1 to infinity. What about the diffirent "number groups" (real numbers, irreal numbers, whole numbers, positive whole numbers ect) I have no idea what it's called in english. But acording to that, the positive numbers are always twice as many as the whole numbers. Even though both are infinite. Whenever you add one more positive number (...1), you will add 2 more whole numbers (-...1). Dosn't that mean that infinity can infact be added to. infinity+1 != infinity even though both of them are infinity"

This is where I wish I studied math.

My understanding is that we're dealing with sets of numbers where the cardinality of the set is infinite. Its not that infinity can be added to, but that sets of infinite length can be compared with each other.

Logically, if every time step we add 2 numbers to the set of whole numbers and we add 1 number to the set of positive numbers then with infinite time steps we can expect that the set of whole numbers will be twice the size.

Its a strange idea that one infinity may be greater than another, and it doesn't make a great deal of sense to me either!

Please correct me if I'm wrong here as I may be..

Libervurto
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:10 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:14
0.999... = 1 because no matter what degree of accuracy you use there will always be an extra 9 at the end that needs to be rounded up.

For those struggling with the concept, consider: 1 - 0.999... = 0.000...
There is never a sufficient number of zeroes to place a 1 after.

Quote: "So we can't say 9+0.999...=9.999... or 10"

Yes, we can.

And we can use that to prove 0.999... = 1

1/9 = 0.111...
9/9 = 0.999... = 1
10/9 = 0.111... + 0.999... = 1.111... = 1 + 1/9

I've heard some kooky religious arguments but "maths is confusing, so GOD!" is a new one on me.


ionstream
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:11 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:11
@The Zoq2 - Are you talking about how many numbers there are in a set? This is a more interesting problem, but I have to preface an explanation by saying that infinity is not a measure. If I said there were an infinite amount of numbers in the set of real numbers, this simply means that the set of real numbers is boundless. Infinity is not a magic number that acts weirdly, its just a property. So if you ask, are there more integers than there are prime numbers, the answer is no even though the set of prime numbers is wholly contained by the set of integers (a strict subset) and are only a few prime numbers in a particular region of numbers. But because both sets are boundless, there is no limit to each of them. This is all that is meant by an infinite set.

However, cardinality is a different and even more interesting problem. With integers and prime number, you can make a map from an integer to a prime number, for example:

1 maps to 2,
2 maps to 3,
3 maps to 5,
4 maps to 7,
5 maps to 11,

And so on, and you could cover every prime number with every integer. However, you can't do the same with integers to the set of real numbers! It would appear that there are too many real numbers to be mapped from integers, even though both are boundless. This distinction gives us two types of sets of numbers: sets that are countable, like integers and prime numbers, and sets that are uncountable, like real numbers. Wikipedia has a good article on them: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Countable_set

The Zoq2
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:22
Quote: " Are you talking about how many numbers there are in a set?"


That's probably the propper word for it.

Quote: "Logically, if every time step we add 2 numbers to the set of whole numbers and we add 1 number to the set of positive numbers then with infinite time steps we can expect that the set of whole numbers will be twice the size."


That's the way I have heard it to, I guess it's a bit diffirent from the infinity + 1 thing now that I think about it.

But based on my understanding of this, you can add or remove anthing from infinity and you will still have infinity. Only a diffirent size of infinity that can only be comparable to other "sizes" of infinity. Compared to a real value all of them will just be infinity
Dark Java Dude 64
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:27 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:33
I'm not even going to try reading all of these. 0.9 repeating is equal to one.

Here is why:

ANY number divided by a second number will produce a quotient that when multiplied by that second number WILL equal the original number.

For example, 1/3=0.3 repeating.

If we proceed to multiply 0.3 repeating by 3, we will find that the result will be 0.9 repeating, but we know it MUST be 1, due to the aforementioned rule.

This is simple proof that cannot be ignored reasonably.

Wanna call me a fat troll MrHandy? Go for it. I'm not willing to make myself look like an idiot here.

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mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:38 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:54
@ALL

Okay, it was fun, now stop.

Actually saying 0.(9)=1 is true trolling because it's the one of the spells that have 100% chance to cause battle.
Other spell is XBOX360 vs PS3.
You know what I mean.

1/3 has a limit, it means that 1 has been divided by 3 without any leftover, slick and clean.

Actually 0.(9) is not a number, it is a approx. representation of unlimited 9.
So it's not possible to imagine any number after those 0.(9), like 0.(9)2..

I can't agree with 0.(9)=1... and with 0.(9)<1 either. (but logically yes, it is correct that it less than 1, that is my logical point.)

For example, how can you describe a 1-0.(9)5=0.(0)5?
You can and can't describe at the same time. It's like unlimited zeros and THEN five? No.

It's a BUG of decimal system. God said that he won't fix it as it doesn't affect anything and he's too busy.

So it is true that record 0.(3) exists and counts as 1/3 but to use it correctly it you need to represent it as 1/3.

How about 0.(142857)? Is it 0.142857? No. It has brackets as it has recursion.

1-0.(9)=0.0(1) but using such number will cause this:



edit: typos

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Zotoaster
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:48
Quote: "So it is true that record 0.(3) exists, counts as 1/3 but to use it correclty it you need to represent it as 1/3."


Not sure what you're meaning here. If they both represent the same numerical value, why is one correct and the other not?

And if 0.(3) counts as 1/3, then surely you must concede that 3 * (1/3) = 3 * 0.(3) = 1. Why not then concede that 0.(9) = 1?


Folks, I can understand why this is hard to grasp. It's not "a bug in the decimal system", it's a bug in the human brain, or more a feature really, because we humans never had time to preoccupy ourselves with the meaning of infinity, so of course it's a very abstract problem that doesn't make sense to us. That's why it's such a fascinating problem, because the truth is nonsense to us, but it's still the truth. Math is more logical and rational than mere fallible humans, and proof is not estimation, it's solid proof. So when you see a proof that 0.9... = 1, you can't shrug it off and say it's illogical, it's just simply not natural in our eyes.

It should certainly not be such flamebait though.

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mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:51
1/3 is limited, 0.(3) is unlimited, get it?

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Zotoaster
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:52
Limited to what? 1/3 = 0.33333... with infinitely recurring 3s.

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Neuro Fuzzy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:54 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:54
nooooo! Spambot! Curse you for starting this! CURSE YOUUU!


So just to clarify on the 0.99... thing, in the real numbers, 0.99...=1. No ifs/ands/buts. But 0.99... isn't really... it's a decimal representation. It's weird. Decimals are weird, they're our representations of the reals, in the form of a sum.

If d(n) is a function that gives the nth digit, and 10^(-n) is... well, ten-to-the-power-negative-n, then the real number we're talking about is actually the infinite sum d(n)*10^(-n), summed over all n. But wait, you can't just sum over all n, because infinity is weird, so here's how math deals with it:

You can take the partial sums, so you say A(n)=[sum of d(i)*10^(-i) from i=1 to i=n]. Then, A(n) forms a sequence, and you can take the limit of this sequence as n goes to infinity, "rigorously" stated by using, "there exists" and "for all". (A(n)->L as n->infinity means that "for every e>0, there exists an integer N, such that n>N implies |A(n)-L|<e".

THAT'S the rigorous definition of a limit used, so there's a LOT going on behind the scenes. If you don't like it come up with a better definition. (maybe using http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wsOXvQn3JuE as inspiration?)

But even if you did come up with a 'better' definition of a limit, there is no real number infinitely close to 1 but not equal to 1. The vihart video I linked goes through some of the reasoning if you assume there is (0.999...999...999...123... heh), and maybe those properties could be made valid, but at the very least they probably break all the proofs of convergence and what-not, so no using e^x or sine and cosine until you've worked out all the details.

Then there's something called "nonstandard analysis" http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperreal_number which I know nothing about, so the idea does have some credence, they're just not reals.

Quote: "But acording to that, the positive numbers are always twice as many as the whole numbers. Even though both are infinite. Whenever you add one more positive number (...1), you will add 2 more whole numbers (-...1). Dosn't that mean that infinity can infact be added to. infinity+1 != infinity even though both of them are infinity"

AAAAAAH.

So yeah, which infinity are we talking about, cardinal numbers, extended reals, or ordinal numbers, or extended complexes? Or hyperreals. xD

The easiest infinity is the extended reals. That's just R (the reals), plus two elements, positive infinity and negative infinity, and mathematicians cheat and just define them to have the property inf+1=inf, and a<inf for all real a, and -inf<a, etc, leaving "inf-inf", "inf/inf" and "0*inf" undefined. This gives R a nice property called 'compactness'. Every infinite sequence in the extended reals has some subsequence that converges. And a bunch of other stuff but that's the easiest to explain.

Then the complex extended ones... I think it also makes the complex numbers compact. The cool thing here is that you just take C (complex) with ONE extra element, inf. No difference between -inf and +inf anymore. With THIS definition, you can define 1/0!! You just define a/0=inf, when a is not 0, and it's handy and consistent and has nice properties and makes sense so mathematicians do that.

Then the ordinals... I know little about these, but they're basically infinite integers.

Then the cardinals which are the coolest to explain w/ sizes of sets. What you were saying about sizes of sets. You can define an operator "~" and "<~" and "~>". Where "~" is similar to equals, "<~" is similar to less-than-or-equal, and "~>" is similar to greater-than-or-equal, and it has all the same properties of >= = and <=. (definitions below). You find that these operators work perfectly well for finite sets. {a,b,c}~{1,2,3} , {1,2,3,4,5}~>{1,2,3} etc. They also work perfectly well on infinite sets! You find that N~Z (where N is the naturals, Z is the integers), Z~ZxZ (where ZxZ is the set of all ordered pairs of integers (a,b)), AND awesomely, N~Q (where Q is the set of all rationals), AND even more awesomely, N<~R. (you can prove that "N~R" is false, so that R is strictly greater than N)

That's because if you take {1,2,3,4,5,...} and {0,1,-1,2,-2,...}, well, the notion of 'size' is blurry, and the most sensible notion is to map one set on the other. 1 maps to 0, 2 maps to 1, 3 maps to -1, etc, and you cover all the integers, using just the naturals! You CAN'T do this with the reals though. If you try to make 1 map to 0.10010101000... and 2 maps to 0.001001... etc, you can show that there will always be real numbers not covered by any natural number. (for some real x, there exists no natural n, such that f(n)=x, where f is ANY function at all)

So the rationals, integers, and naturals are the same size, but are bigger than any finite set, and smaller than the reals.

You can prove that if A is a set, then the set of all subsets of A is strictly larger than A. 'the set of all subsets' is denote P(A) (for 'power set'), so using this you can determine that P(N)~R, and R<P(R), so that you can get infinities-upon-infinities.

If you have a problem w/ it, note that the process of a function mapping is very real. It's like you take one set that's a bucket of water, and dump it into another bucket, and you can never fill the other bucket. Clearly the other bucket is bigger in some sense!

(the definition involves "one-to-one" and "onto" functions. A~B if there exists a one-to-one onto function between them. A<~B if there exists a function from B onto A, and A~>B if there exists a one-to-one function from B to A.

This has all the properties you'd expect. If A<~B and B<~C then A<~C, if A~B and B~C then A~C, etc.)


And this is all straightforward (ehhh, except, for example, the ordinals, you get to the point where taking 'the set of all ordinal numbers' leads to a contradiction, so you get into weird stuff with the continuum hypothesis and russel's paradox and the incompleteness theorem Q_Q. But the, "screw it, I don't want to go through a book on foundational set theory" approach is very straightforward.) All straightforward. If you really want to learn about it I suggest how to prove it by Velleman. Cool stuff. Makes you think better.

[edit]
I'VE GOT BLISTERS ON ME FINGERS


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mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:57 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 00:59
@Zotoaster
I mean using it on paper.

P.S. oh snap, posts popping here too quickly!

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Zotoaster
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 00:59
Quote: "I mean using it on paper"


Unfortunately math does not answer to how much room we have on paper to do the calculations. If you actually do the math, the real world doesn't matter, the truth is still that 0.9... = 1.

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mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:09 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 01:11
= is not very correct. In our case = means that we conventionally, symbolically state than they are equal. But they are not precisely the same.

And it's a bug, or weak point of decimal system.

Also, what's the largest number less than 0.(9)?

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Zotoaster
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:12 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 01:12
Quote: "= is not very correct. In our case = means that we conventionally, symbolically state than they are equal."


It is correct. There have been at least 3 proofs in this thread, proving they are equal. Not just in a "conventional" human way, but in a rigorous mathematical way.



Quote: "Also, what's the largest number less than 0.(9)?"


This question is equally difficult to answer if you ask it as, "what's the largest number less that 1?".

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Indicium
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:19
If 1 is not equal to 0.9r, then what is 1-0.9r?

If something is infinitely close to 1, then it must be 1.


They see me coding, they hating. http://indi-indicium.blogspot.co.uk/
mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:22 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 01:25
Okay, so what's the largest number less that 1?

Also, as i mentioned before the number 0.(142857) -- it's the 0.(9)/7
What's less than this?

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Indicium
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:26
You misunderstand how numbers work. It's not that discrete, it's continuous, so there IS no number that is the largest but is less than one.


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Zotoaster
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:27
There is none. That's like generally asking "what's the largest number?". You can always add 1. Or in your case, some tiny fraction that doesn't quite bring it up to 1.

A better question is, as Indictum pointed out, if 0.9... != 1, then what is 1 - 0.9...? Greater than 0? How much greater? If the answer is 0.000000 ... 0001, where does the '1' appear if there are infinitely many 0s?

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ionstream
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:28 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 01:41
There is no such number. You can prove this by contradiction: assume there is a number less than 1 for which there is no larger number, and lets call it y. Because the number is less than one and not equal to it, I can take its average and call it z:

z = (y + 1)/2

Since z is the average of y and 1 and y is less than 1, z must be greater than y and less than 1. This is a contradiction because y is defined as the largest number less than 1.

Bonus, this doubles as another proof for why 0.999~ is no less than 1.

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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:34 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 01:37
@ionstream
It makes no sence - if you state that y is the largest, then there is no z.

Quote: "A better question is, as Indictum pointed out, if 0.9... != 1, then what is 1 - 0.9...? Greater than 0? How much greater? If the answer is 0.000000 ... 0001, where does the '1' appear if there are infinitely many 0s?"


Why you no read my posts? it's the 0.(0)1, but it doesn't exist as it never come to that ~1. It's impossible number, may call it another bug.

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Indicium
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:35
Exactly his point. Z is an average of 1 and the largest number lower than one, therefore there must be a number between them, so I'll take you back to my post.


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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:36
mt Handy, exactly, it's called proof by contradiction. You may say y to be the largest number less than 1, but it's still a number and you can still get the average between it and 1, which will always be greater than y. Hence, there is no largest number less than 1, because you can always, always, always get a larger number.

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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:39 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 01:42
yay I am a mountain

Quote: "there must be a number between them"

why this number can't be 0.(0)1? That equals to 0 so z=0?

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ionstream
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:46
Quote: "It makes no sence - if you state that y is the largest, then there is no z."


I just showed you that if there is a y then there must be a z. Since the existence of z contradicts y, then y must not exist. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_contradiction

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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 01:58
Quote: "Actually 0.(9) is not a number, it is a approx. representation of unlimited 9."

Nooo it's the limit of the sequence of partial sums!

(assuming by "0.(9)" you mean "0.9...")


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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:02 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 02:06
Quote: "If some of US minds need Pi to be 3,2 - it's their right.
We are democratic union, we accept and tolerate all delusions without any proofs.

Everyone that writes again that 0.(9) = 1 is a fat troll."

I don't understand how this anti-american thing came into this thread but I don't like it. And you can't just brand everyone who disagrees with you as a troll... if anything that's fairly trollish behaviour. Also you're a dick and you need to get off your high horse.
Quote: "Is 0.3333.... actually even the same as 1/3? If you have an infinite number of 3's, you can allways add one more 3 to make it more precise."


I think this is what's at issue here - the point is you can't add anything on the end of a recursive decimal, because there's an infinite number of digits. It's impossible for the human brain to comprehend as we live in a world of rational numbers, but yes, 0.3... is the same as 1/3, because how else do you represent it in decimal form?

The way my teachers used to explain it was to say this : imagine a number between 0.9... and 1. Can you? You can't, because there is no number in between them - hence they are the same number, just represented differently.

I hate to get snooty about this but it irritates me that all the arguments are against are just 'It's not because I don't like it waaaah!' What gets me is that this isn't a mathematically disputed fact. Mathematicians just take it as read that 0.9... is 1.

Edit: Woaaaaah, you write one long post and a million pop up before it. Ermmm, did you guys know that some infinities can be different sizes? Just another little factoid there.

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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:06 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 02:06
Quote: "It's impossible for the human brain to comprehend as we live in a world of rational numbers"

nawww we live in a world of physical measurements. WAY different. Mathematicians can completely understand the infinities that mathematics defines. (see my tl;dr post)

[edit]
and we can certainly understand infinite sums.


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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:11
Quote: "nawww we live in a world of physical measurements. WAY different. Mathematicians can completely understand the infinities that mathematics defines. (see my tl;dr post)

[edit]
and we can certainly understand infinite sums.
"


Okay, true and good point, I'm not good with my words I'll admit

I perhaps meant to say that it's impossible to visualize infinity because, being infinite, we have nothing in the physical, observable world to compare it to. But yes, we do certainly understand infinity. (Well maybe not me but very smart people )

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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:16
I'm not even sure about having nothing in the physical world to compare it to... because we have positions, and we can choose from an infinite number of positions between 0cm and 1cm, so... yeah. But with physicists saying things like time might not have existed before the big bang, and all these crazy things in mathematics, as far as I'm concerned the natural numbers are just as fictional as infinity XD

and if you want to understand it I have a book recommendation, Velleman's 'how to prove it'! Doo eeet! It's awesome! Infinity!


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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:22
Quote: "I'm not even sure about having nothing in the physical world to compare it to... because we have positions, and we can choose from an infinite number of positions between 0cm and 1cm, so... yeah."


I suppose this goes back to the frog/log/lake example poster earlier... my brain hurts :L I don't know anyone who looks at a distance and imagines it as a set of infinite tiny distances, but you may be right... I will definitely read up more on this subject, it's piqued my curiosity!

Libervurto
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:31
Quote: "I perhaps meant to say that it's impossible to visualize infinity because, being infinite, we have nothing in the physical, observable world to compare it to."

We deal with infinities all the time. We wouldn't be able to count if infinities weren't second nature to us. As far as I'm concerned the taps in my house give out an infinite stream of water and I have an infinite power supply. Of course neither of these things are really physically infinite but infinity is not a property of an object, it's not a number; it's a concept. Saying that we can't visualise infinity is like saying we can't visualise politics or humour.

This is like when people wonder how the universe could be infinite without looping back on itself. It's infinite because it is expanding, it is the process of expansion that makes it of infinite and indeterminable size. Infinity can't be a static thing because then it would have a finite end.


Kezzla
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:34
Hmmm, this has really got me thinking.

It is a very though provoking puzzle.

It seems to me the confusion is based around Quantization and the artifacts it can produce. I personally would take the following tack with the problem

1/3 = 0.3r
0.3r * 3 = 0.9r

0.9r and 1 appear to be different numbers, the decimal system introduces quantization errors and so so I adjust for quantization by changing from devisions of 10 into devisions of 6(or three or nine,whatever takes your fancy)


1/3 = 0.2
3*0.2 = 1

I can however see how the initial decimal problem introduces and element of infinity that is interesting to think about, and i am not done thinking about it. for me it still comes down to quantization. be it within the mind or the counting system.

interesting.

I'm not a complete idiot -- Some parts are just missing.
Benjamin
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 02:56
Quote: "God is in it."


Odin?

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mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:02 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 03:15
@Insert Name Here
Quote: "I don't understand how this anti-american thing came into this thread but I don't like it. "


There was given a link about Indiana Pi Bill. You may don't like it as much as you want.
Quote: "I suppose this goes back to the frog/log/lake example poster earlier..."

That's not math, unless you are still in kindergarden...
Quote: "Also you're a dick"

..oh, you really are.

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rolfy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:14
And so with the infinite possible directions this thread could have taken it takes the most obvious and inevitable one.

I don't trip over...I do random gravity checks.
mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:18
@rolfy
You mean god? It was the last post.

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Dark Java Dude 64
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:23 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 03:23
Quote: "There was given a link about Indiana Pi Bill. You may don't like it as much as you want."
Ya, how about you never again post anything anti American here again. Ever. The intention with which you posted that link is highly offensive to many people. Us Americans have done nothing wrong to deserve the stereotype and we are getting tired of it. We don't go around bullying other countries, now do we?

Meh, I guess I shouldn't bring this up and I'll leave it at that. This type of content never goes too well here...

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rolfy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:24 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 04:00
Quote: "@rolfy
You mean god? It was the last post."

Nay, I talk of the degeneration into name calling and smell of crispy fella that permeates the air.

People shouldn't argue about this its a great topic for discussion but it's something you accept and understand, or you don't. Ether way its not going to improve your life.
Dont be surprised by the way its went, even the greatest minds will drop to playground level arguing this topic.

For the spambot troll, its 'mission accomplished', it can now crawl back into the black hole from whence it came where it will be reprogrammed for discussion on "Achilles and the Tortoise".

I don't trip over...I do random gravity checks.
Libervurto
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:30



mr Handy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:47
Quote: "Ya, how about you never again post anything anti American here again."

Leave your stars and stripes outside, we discuss math.

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Dark Java Dude 64
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 03:59
Lol that was actually pretty funny.

http://www.google.com/
Zotoaster
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 04:00
How many mathematicians does it take to screw in a lightbulb?

0.9999...

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easter bunny
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 04:36
It's actually quite pointless to debate something like this, it's been proven that 0.999... = 1
most things cannot be proven, only a large amount of data can be given to support it. for instance, it cannot be proven that dinosaurs existed, its possible that all those fossils are fakes, all of them.
of course, the chances of that being true is about 1/1,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999 (just guessing )

but something like maths CAN be proven (1+1=2, it's impossible to argue).
Now it doesn't sound logical that 9.999...=1, but neither does it sound logical that an objects mass increases the faster it travels, while this isn't proven, it's fairly certain.

Some of the most brilliant mathematicians have decided that 9.999...=1, and I think that they probably know better than me, so I'm willing to change my beliefs to fit the experts beliefs. This is the attitude that you must have if you're going to learn things in life, otherwise you'll just be stuck in your own beliefs forever

Now about debating the colour of tennis balls on the other hand..........
are they green or yellow?

rolfy
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 04:50 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 04:55
Quote: "Now about debating the colour of tennis balls on the other hand..........
are they green or yellow?"

Neither, its the reflected, absorbed, or transmitted light that has colour, It makes no difference to the dog who just wants to play,play,play

I don't trip over...I do random gravity checks.
easter bunny
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 05:09
Quote: "Neither, its the reflected, absorbed, or transmitted light that has colour, It makes no difference to the dog who just wants to play,play,play"

THANKYOU!!!
I'll definitely use that argument in the family reunions

Phaelax
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 07:14
Wouldn't it be just the reflected light? Since absorbed light you wouldn't see?

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ionstream
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Posted: 25th Apr 2013 08:02 Edited at: 25th Apr 2013 08:10
Mr Handy, I hope you appreciate the irony of trying to insult the intelligence of a group of people while you have been consistently and stubbornly wrong this entire thread.

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